Infectious Diseases Question 90

A 25-year-old man is evaluated in follow-up after HIV testing. He states he has sex with other men and usually uses condoms. He had a negative HIV test result 1 year ago. He feels well today but reports having a flulike illness last week with mild fever, headache, myalgias, and fatigue; these symptoms have resolved. Medical history is unremarkable for sexually transmitted or other infections. Other than taking over-the-counter ibuprofen last week, he takes no medications.

On physical examination, he is afebrile and has small palpable anterior and posterior cervical, axillary, and inguinal lymph nodes. The remainder of the examination is normal.

HIV-1/2 antigen/antibody combination immunoassay is reactive. Result of an HIV-1/HIV-2 antibody differentiation immunoassay is negative for HIV-1 and HIV-2. Result of an HIV-1 nucleic acid amplification testing is positive, with 51,455 copies/mL.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A Repeat HIV-1/HIV-2 antibody differentiation immunoassay in 6 weeks

B Saliva rapid HIV testing

C T-cell subset testing

D Western blot HIV-1 antibody testing

Choose an Answer Above

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