Hematology Oncology Question 80

A 58-year-old man undergoes follow-up evaluation for cancer of the ascending colon diagnosed 3 weeks ago. Colonoscopy at that time revealed a fungating mass in the ascending colon. Biopsy revealed adenocarcinoma, and additional studies showed no evidence of metastatic disease. Right hemicolectomy was performed. The pathology report showed a 4-cm primary adenocarcinoma with clear margins at resection, full-thickness penetration through the colonic wall into pericolonic fat, and 4/21 lymph nodes involved (stage III). Medical history is otherwise unremarkable, and the patient takes no medications.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. Examination of the abdomen shows well-healed surgical scars but is otherwise normal.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management at this time?

A Leucovorin, 5-fluorouracil, and oxaliplatin (FOLFOX)

B Radiation therapy

C Radiation therapy and capecitabine followed by capecitabine plus oxaliplatin (CAPOX)

D Observation

Choose an Answer Above

Have your answer...click Next Page to see if you're right.

Powered ByCareerCast